I want to update income amounts associated with rental property assets that are included in my lifetime planner model, where these assets were purchased several years ago. I am unsure if the income value I enter (screenshot attached), in "today's value" is back-dated to the purchase date (2011 in this example) or are applied from "today's" date going forwards.
With the annual inflation, very different cash flows would result and I am not sure if I should adjust the current actual value back to its purchase date equivalent before entering here (hopefully not).
I have a similar question to the asset expense entry (which also has a "today's value" note in its screen), but I assume the same answer should apply to both.
Thanks in advance