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Asset Allocation Share Balance Negative

Billy1

I'm running Quicken Classic Windows Ver. R58.14. When I run an Asset Allocation report one specific ETF shows a negative share balance under various asset classes. I only had 15 transactions for the ETF so I deleted them all and ran "Validate & Repair and then re-entered each transaction. The allocation report shows a positive and accurate share balance until I enter the final one time sale of all shares in the ETF when it then shows a negative share balance. The "Security Detail View" shows a zero share balance for this ETF after sale so puzzled why a negative balance is reflected on the asset report. I don't think it should even be included on the report as I no longer have any shares? Would appreciate any help. Thanks

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Jim_Harman

Is the negative balance a small fraction of a share, or is it significant?

Were the share transactions only Buy, Sell, and Reinvest, or were there other transactions - Return of Capital, spin-off, etc? If so, what?

Billy1

No sir, there were only buy, sell and reinvest with one reverse 1 for 2 stock split. No return of Capital or other. The total final sell was approx. 2,700 shares and the total negative shares reflected in asset report is 858.

Jim_Harman

OK, I am suspicious of how the Split was recorded in Quicken.

How many shares did you have before the split, how many were there after the split, and how was the split recorded in Quicken? Were there any Removed transactions or Placeholders?

Billy1

The one time sale of all the shares was approx 2700 shares and the total negative shares reflected in the asset report is 858. There were no removed or placeholder transactions. I'm thinking about deleting the split transaction and then entering a sale using the number of shares prior to the split to see if that fixes the negative share balance?

Billy1

I deleted the split and final sale transactions. Then entered a sale of all shares using the pre split share balance and the asset allocation report is accurate. That is no shares of the ETF are reported. So as you said the spit transaction is probably the issue, but I'm still puzzled as to why as I've never had this issue before?

Jim_Harman

That is progress.

Was the split the last transaction before the final sale?

If you re-enter the split and the final sale, do you still see the problem?

If so, click on Holdings and set the As Of date to before the split. Click on the little plus sign next to the security name to see the tax lots prior to the split. Compare these to the lots after the split. Is anything amiss?

Did you hold an odd number of shares prior to the split? If so, what happened to the half share from the 1:2 reverse split?

Billy1

Split and then one dividend reinvestment followed by total share sale and one dividend after the sale (not reinvested).
Yes, same issue after re-entering.
I don't think I see anything amiss with the lots, but have attached two screen shots reflecting lots one day prior and after split.
The total shares prior to split (1 for 2) were 5515.766 and 2757.833 after split. I'm not sure if you would call this odd lots.

after_split.jpg

before_split.jpg

I appreciate all your help.

NotACPA

Was the close-out sale transaction for a specific number of shares … or "Sell All"?

Billy1

Yes. That is I've tried it both ways with the same results.

q_lurker

why did the 1/24/13 lot of 5,435 split to 2,717.450732 shares? Something is wrong with that lot. I’d delete that purchase and re-enter it from scratch - even though it doesn’t directly correspond to the 858 share discrepancy.

Billy1

There weren't that many transactions for this ETF so I again deleted all and ran the Validate and Repair function and re-entered all transactions. This time the lots after the split correctly reflect a 1 for 2 split. Unfortunately the asset report still has negative balance shares of this ETF of which all shares were sold. I think I give!

Jim_Harman

What is the asset class for the negative shares?

Are you using Quicken's built-in asset classes, or have you defined custom classes?

After the split but before the final sale, do the asset allocations look correct for this security?

q_lurker

Back to the beginning - can we cross-check a few things?

You are talking about an Asset Allocation report accessible through the Reports pull-down menu / Investing / Investment Asset Allocation. Not some on-screen dashboard card or portfolio view. Correct?

That report uses the asset class mixture percentages times the number of shares and then presents as if you own (% x shares) of that security within that class. For the Vanguard S&P 500 ETF (VOO), the current mix in my data is 81% Large Cap, 18% Small Cap and 1% International. Is that the mix your data shows? Does your report show only those three for VOO? If your mix is different, is the report consistent across the mix?

That is, if you had 1000 shares, the report would show in the Large Cap class that you owned 810 shares of VOO; and 180 shares of VOO in the Small Cap class, with 10 shares in the International class. Is your report showing that type of consistency? Stated another way, if you have -858 shares in one class, you should have negative shares in all other classes of that holding in that account. Is that the case? If not, I'd suggest you somehow have a bad program install.

Billy1

Yes, I'm using the full report & not a screen dashboard, and the ETF in question is Vanguard's VOO. The share count breakdown on the report after the one and only sale is: Intl. Stocks -27.303042, Large Cap -424.438194, Small Cap -407.063541 for a total of -858.80474 shares or 3.2%, 49.4% and 47.4% respectively. So no this doesn't even match the actual ETF composition. I then deleted the stock sale and the asset report percentages are now 0.40%, 43%, and 4.80% respectively, for a total share balance of 1914.020223, which doesn't equal 100%. or account for the actual total prior sale shares held of 2772.825.

What I now see is that the actual shares held prior to the sale 2772.825 minus total shares from asset report prior to sale 1914.020223 = 858.804777, which is the negative share balance on asset report after the final sale of all shares. Sorry for the long explanation and hope I stated this clearly.

Jim_Harman

OK, so the Asset Allocation report shows an incorrect share balance prior to the sale.

If you restrict the report to the account where these transactions took place, is it still wrong? If that makes the report correct, that would indicate that Quicken thinks you have a negative share balance in another account.

If you adjust the ending date of the report back in time, can you find the date when the share balance in the report first disagrees with the account balance? Look for and correct or delete and replace a related transaction on that date.

Billy1

Yes, still inaccurate when restricting to specific account. As suggested I went back in time and discovered the error begins immediately after the 1 for 2 stock split. I also checked the lots share balance before and after the split and the after split shares correctly reflect a 1 for 2 split. Somehow I've lost shares, I think during the split process, and yet the share lots reflect a correct post split share amount?

q_lurker

Regarding your statement about not having placeholders - when you looked for them, was your Edit / Preferences / Investments checked to “Show hidden transactions”? Your issues just smells like a placeholder issue to me.

Billy1

No, this option was not checked. After selecting this option I checked every Vanguard account and only found one unrelated placeholder. I'm using the selection tab at the bottom of the register. Is their perhaps another way to check.

q_lurker

Is their perhaps another way to check.

I am not the best one to answer that question since I avoid placeholders like the plague but I would also be looking for any Adjust Share transactions especially around the time of the split in that account.

Billy1

I checked for Adjusted Share transactions and their were none. There are only 2 transactions after the 2013 split, which includes a dividend reinvestment and a final sale. If I delete the split and and use the correct dollar values for the last two transactions the only inaccuracy would be the share balance which goes to zero anyway after final sale. This then makes the current asset report accurate so I'm wondering if anyone sees a problem with me taking this route? Thanks for all of the assistance!

q_lurker

The only other corrective action I can see within this data file would be to recreate the 15 transactions under a different (but similar) security name. I'd create it without a ticker symbol. If that security behaves correctly, delete the older version of the security. I think you could then assign the older (correct) ticker to that new security and that would use the existing price history records under that ticker for this newly created security.